Sum of Itemwise Products of Two Sets of Real Numbers










3












$begingroup$


The memory that I considered this question a long time ago was jogged by my perusing an earlier one about whether a product is always greater than a sum.



If you have two sequences of real positive numbers, all greater than 1, and each sequence increasing with increasing index $k$



$$a_k , k in 0 ... n$$



&



$$b_k , k in 0 ... n , $$



and if the elements are multiplied together itemwise & the products summed, is the maximum always



$sum_k=0^n a_k b_k$



and the minimum always



$sum_k=0^n a_k b_n-k$?



It would seem so, merely casting it in the mind ... but I can't see how it would be rigorously proven ... nor am I absolutely sure it's absolutely true, either.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Rearrangement inequality?
    $endgroup$
    – lastresort
    Nov 15 '18 at 6:10










  • $begingroup$
    Is that the name for this theorem that I've asked for verification & proof of? I thought it probably would have a name & be a theorem ... but I just couldn't find it anywhere!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 6:27










  • $begingroup$
    Seen it now - thanks for that. And you don't even need the >1 condition!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 6:30















3












$begingroup$


The memory that I considered this question a long time ago was jogged by my perusing an earlier one about whether a product is always greater than a sum.



If you have two sequences of real positive numbers, all greater than 1, and each sequence increasing with increasing index $k$



$$a_k , k in 0 ... n$$



&



$$b_k , k in 0 ... n , $$



and if the elements are multiplied together itemwise & the products summed, is the maximum always



$sum_k=0^n a_k b_k$



and the minimum always



$sum_k=0^n a_k b_n-k$?



It would seem so, merely casting it in the mind ... but I can't see how it would be rigorously proven ... nor am I absolutely sure it's absolutely true, either.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Rearrangement inequality?
    $endgroup$
    – lastresort
    Nov 15 '18 at 6:10










  • $begingroup$
    Is that the name for this theorem that I've asked for verification & proof of? I thought it probably would have a name & be a theorem ... but I just couldn't find it anywhere!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 6:27










  • $begingroup$
    Seen it now - thanks for that. And you don't even need the >1 condition!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 6:30













3












3








3





$begingroup$


The memory that I considered this question a long time ago was jogged by my perusing an earlier one about whether a product is always greater than a sum.



If you have two sequences of real positive numbers, all greater than 1, and each sequence increasing with increasing index $k$



$$a_k , k in 0 ... n$$



&



$$b_k , k in 0 ... n , $$



and if the elements are multiplied together itemwise & the products summed, is the maximum always



$sum_k=0^n a_k b_k$



and the minimum always



$sum_k=0^n a_k b_n-k$?



It would seem so, merely casting it in the mind ... but I can't see how it would be rigorously proven ... nor am I absolutely sure it's absolutely true, either.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




The memory that I considered this question a long time ago was jogged by my perusing an earlier one about whether a product is always greater than a sum.



If you have two sequences of real positive numbers, all greater than 1, and each sequence increasing with increasing index $k$



$$a_k , k in 0 ... n$$



&



$$b_k , k in 0 ... n , $$



and if the elements are multiplied together itemwise & the products summed, is the maximum always



$sum_k=0^n a_k b_k$



and the minimum always



$sum_k=0^n a_k b_n-k$?



It would seem so, merely casting it in the mind ... but I can't see how it would be rigorously proven ... nor am I absolutely sure it's absolutely true, either.







sequences-and-series summation






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 15 '18 at 0:53









Andrés E. Caicedo

65.8k8160252




65.8k8160252










asked Nov 15 '18 at 0:31









AmbretteOrriseyAmbretteOrrisey

54210




54210







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Rearrangement inequality?
    $endgroup$
    – lastresort
    Nov 15 '18 at 6:10










  • $begingroup$
    Is that the name for this theorem that I've asked for verification & proof of? I thought it probably would have a name & be a theorem ... but I just couldn't find it anywhere!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 6:27










  • $begingroup$
    Seen it now - thanks for that. And you don't even need the >1 condition!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 6:30












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Rearrangement inequality?
    $endgroup$
    – lastresort
    Nov 15 '18 at 6:10










  • $begingroup$
    Is that the name for this theorem that I've asked for verification & proof of? I thought it probably would have a name & be a theorem ... but I just couldn't find it anywhere!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 6:27










  • $begingroup$
    Seen it now - thanks for that. And you don't even need the >1 condition!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 6:30







2




2




$begingroup$
Rearrangement inequality?
$endgroup$
– lastresort
Nov 15 '18 at 6:10




$begingroup$
Rearrangement inequality?
$endgroup$
– lastresort
Nov 15 '18 at 6:10












$begingroup$
Is that the name for this theorem that I've asked for verification & proof of? I thought it probably would have a name & be a theorem ... but I just couldn't find it anywhere!
$endgroup$
– AmbretteOrrisey
Nov 15 '18 at 6:27




$begingroup$
Is that the name for this theorem that I've asked for verification & proof of? I thought it probably would have a name & be a theorem ... but I just couldn't find it anywhere!
$endgroup$
– AmbretteOrrisey
Nov 15 '18 at 6:27












$begingroup$
Seen it now - thanks for that. And you don't even need the >1 condition!
$endgroup$
– AmbretteOrrisey
Nov 15 '18 at 6:30




$begingroup$
Seen it now - thanks for that. And you don't even need the >1 condition!
$endgroup$
– AmbretteOrrisey
Nov 15 '18 at 6:30










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

First consider the simplest nontrivial case, $n=2$. Let $a_1>a_0$ and $b_1>b_0$. Then $(a_1-a_0)(b_1-b_0)>0$, which simplifies to $a_0b_0+a_1b_1>a_0b_1+a_1b_0$, which is what we want.



Now let $n>2$. Without loss of generality, fix $a$ in its sorted permutation and consider permutations of $b$. If $b$ is not sorted, then there are two indices that are out of order, and the $n=2$ lemma proves that we can increase the product by swapping those two indices. Therefore only the sorted order of $b$ maximizes the product. For the same reason, only the anti-sorted order of $b$ minimizes the product.



(You could toss a bunch of index notation at the previous paragraph to make it look more formal.)






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    That looks like an answer, that does. I'll scrutinise it ... but it has a solid look about it.
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:27










  • $begingroup$
    Oh ... thankyou, by the way!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:28










  • $begingroup$
    You're welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Chris Culter
    Nov 15 '18 at 21:18


















3












$begingroup$

Yes. Start with $n=1$ so there are two items in each list. Note that $$(a_0b_0+a_1b_1) - (a_0b_1+a_1b_0)=a_1(b_1-b_0)-a_0(b_1-b_0)gt 0$$
For longer lists, you can use the same argument to swap any pair that is out of order and increase the sum.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes - the other guy said essentially the same thing. It's essentially proving it for $n=1$ (two items), then proceeding by induction thence to arbitrary n. Thankyou!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:30











  • $begingroup$
    Or maybe not induction strictly speaking ... but showing that by applying the two-item case repeatedly until they are both in sorted order always increases the sum of products as defined.
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:37











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









3












$begingroup$

First consider the simplest nontrivial case, $n=2$. Let $a_1>a_0$ and $b_1>b_0$. Then $(a_1-a_0)(b_1-b_0)>0$, which simplifies to $a_0b_0+a_1b_1>a_0b_1+a_1b_0$, which is what we want.



Now let $n>2$. Without loss of generality, fix $a$ in its sorted permutation and consider permutations of $b$. If $b$ is not sorted, then there are two indices that are out of order, and the $n=2$ lemma proves that we can increase the product by swapping those two indices. Therefore only the sorted order of $b$ maximizes the product. For the same reason, only the anti-sorted order of $b$ minimizes the product.



(You could toss a bunch of index notation at the previous paragraph to make it look more formal.)






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    That looks like an answer, that does. I'll scrutinise it ... but it has a solid look about it.
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:27










  • $begingroup$
    Oh ... thankyou, by the way!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:28










  • $begingroup$
    You're welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Chris Culter
    Nov 15 '18 at 21:18















3












$begingroup$

First consider the simplest nontrivial case, $n=2$. Let $a_1>a_0$ and $b_1>b_0$. Then $(a_1-a_0)(b_1-b_0)>0$, which simplifies to $a_0b_0+a_1b_1>a_0b_1+a_1b_0$, which is what we want.



Now let $n>2$. Without loss of generality, fix $a$ in its sorted permutation and consider permutations of $b$. If $b$ is not sorted, then there are two indices that are out of order, and the $n=2$ lemma proves that we can increase the product by swapping those two indices. Therefore only the sorted order of $b$ maximizes the product. For the same reason, only the anti-sorted order of $b$ minimizes the product.



(You could toss a bunch of index notation at the previous paragraph to make it look more formal.)






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    That looks like an answer, that does. I'll scrutinise it ... but it has a solid look about it.
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:27










  • $begingroup$
    Oh ... thankyou, by the way!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:28










  • $begingroup$
    You're welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Chris Culter
    Nov 15 '18 at 21:18













3












3








3





$begingroup$

First consider the simplest nontrivial case, $n=2$. Let $a_1>a_0$ and $b_1>b_0$. Then $(a_1-a_0)(b_1-b_0)>0$, which simplifies to $a_0b_0+a_1b_1>a_0b_1+a_1b_0$, which is what we want.



Now let $n>2$. Without loss of generality, fix $a$ in its sorted permutation and consider permutations of $b$. If $b$ is not sorted, then there are two indices that are out of order, and the $n=2$ lemma proves that we can increase the product by swapping those two indices. Therefore only the sorted order of $b$ maximizes the product. For the same reason, only the anti-sorted order of $b$ minimizes the product.



(You could toss a bunch of index notation at the previous paragraph to make it look more formal.)






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



First consider the simplest nontrivial case, $n=2$. Let $a_1>a_0$ and $b_1>b_0$. Then $(a_1-a_0)(b_1-b_0)>0$, which simplifies to $a_0b_0+a_1b_1>a_0b_1+a_1b_0$, which is what we want.



Now let $n>2$. Without loss of generality, fix $a$ in its sorted permutation and consider permutations of $b$. If $b$ is not sorted, then there are two indices that are out of order, and the $n=2$ lemma proves that we can increase the product by swapping those two indices. Therefore only the sorted order of $b$ maximizes the product. For the same reason, only the anti-sorted order of $b$ minimizes the product.



(You could toss a bunch of index notation at the previous paragraph to make it look more formal.)







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 15 '18 at 1:20









Chris CulterChris Culter

21.5k43888




21.5k43888











  • $begingroup$
    That looks like an answer, that does. I'll scrutinise it ... but it has a solid look about it.
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:27










  • $begingroup$
    Oh ... thankyou, by the way!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:28










  • $begingroup$
    You're welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Chris Culter
    Nov 15 '18 at 21:18
















  • $begingroup$
    That looks like an answer, that does. I'll scrutinise it ... but it has a solid look about it.
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:27










  • $begingroup$
    Oh ... thankyou, by the way!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:28










  • $begingroup$
    You're welcome!
    $endgroup$
    – Chris Culter
    Nov 15 '18 at 21:18















$begingroup$
That looks like an answer, that does. I'll scrutinise it ... but it has a solid look about it.
$endgroup$
– AmbretteOrrisey
Nov 15 '18 at 1:27




$begingroup$
That looks like an answer, that does. I'll scrutinise it ... but it has a solid look about it.
$endgroup$
– AmbretteOrrisey
Nov 15 '18 at 1:27












$begingroup$
Oh ... thankyou, by the way!
$endgroup$
– AmbretteOrrisey
Nov 15 '18 at 1:28




$begingroup$
Oh ... thankyou, by the way!
$endgroup$
– AmbretteOrrisey
Nov 15 '18 at 1:28












$begingroup$
You're welcome!
$endgroup$
– Chris Culter
Nov 15 '18 at 21:18




$begingroup$
You're welcome!
$endgroup$
– Chris Culter
Nov 15 '18 at 21:18











3












$begingroup$

Yes. Start with $n=1$ so there are two items in each list. Note that $$(a_0b_0+a_1b_1) - (a_0b_1+a_1b_0)=a_1(b_1-b_0)-a_0(b_1-b_0)gt 0$$
For longer lists, you can use the same argument to swap any pair that is out of order and increase the sum.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes - the other guy said essentially the same thing. It's essentially proving it for $n=1$ (two items), then proceeding by induction thence to arbitrary n. Thankyou!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:30











  • $begingroup$
    Or maybe not induction strictly speaking ... but showing that by applying the two-item case repeatedly until they are both in sorted order always increases the sum of products as defined.
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:37















3












$begingroup$

Yes. Start with $n=1$ so there are two items in each list. Note that $$(a_0b_0+a_1b_1) - (a_0b_1+a_1b_0)=a_1(b_1-b_0)-a_0(b_1-b_0)gt 0$$
For longer lists, you can use the same argument to swap any pair that is out of order and increase the sum.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes - the other guy said essentially the same thing. It's essentially proving it for $n=1$ (two items), then proceeding by induction thence to arbitrary n. Thankyou!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:30











  • $begingroup$
    Or maybe not induction strictly speaking ... but showing that by applying the two-item case repeatedly until they are both in sorted order always increases the sum of products as defined.
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:37













3












3








3





$begingroup$

Yes. Start with $n=1$ so there are two items in each list. Note that $$(a_0b_0+a_1b_1) - (a_0b_1+a_1b_0)=a_1(b_1-b_0)-a_0(b_1-b_0)gt 0$$
For longer lists, you can use the same argument to swap any pair that is out of order and increase the sum.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Yes. Start with $n=1$ so there are two items in each list. Note that $$(a_0b_0+a_1b_1) - (a_0b_1+a_1b_0)=a_1(b_1-b_0)-a_0(b_1-b_0)gt 0$$
For longer lists, you can use the same argument to swap any pair that is out of order and increase the sum.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 15 '18 at 1:21









Ross MillikanRoss Millikan

301k24200375




301k24200375











  • $begingroup$
    Yes - the other guy said essentially the same thing. It's essentially proving it for $n=1$ (two items), then proceeding by induction thence to arbitrary n. Thankyou!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:30











  • $begingroup$
    Or maybe not induction strictly speaking ... but showing that by applying the two-item case repeatedly until they are both in sorted order always increases the sum of products as defined.
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:37
















  • $begingroup$
    Yes - the other guy said essentially the same thing. It's essentially proving it for $n=1$ (two items), then proceeding by induction thence to arbitrary n. Thankyou!
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:30











  • $begingroup$
    Or maybe not induction strictly speaking ... but showing that by applying the two-item case repeatedly until they are both in sorted order always increases the sum of products as defined.
    $endgroup$
    – AmbretteOrrisey
    Nov 15 '18 at 1:37















$begingroup$
Yes - the other guy said essentially the same thing. It's essentially proving it for $n=1$ (two items), then proceeding by induction thence to arbitrary n. Thankyou!
$endgroup$
– AmbretteOrrisey
Nov 15 '18 at 1:30





$begingroup$
Yes - the other guy said essentially the same thing. It's essentially proving it for $n=1$ (two items), then proceeding by induction thence to arbitrary n. Thankyou!
$endgroup$
– AmbretteOrrisey
Nov 15 '18 at 1:30













$begingroup$
Or maybe not induction strictly speaking ... but showing that by applying the two-item case repeatedly until they are both in sorted order always increases the sum of products as defined.
$endgroup$
– AmbretteOrrisey
Nov 15 '18 at 1:37




$begingroup$
Or maybe not induction strictly speaking ... but showing that by applying the two-item case repeatedly until they are both in sorted order always increases the sum of products as defined.
$endgroup$
– AmbretteOrrisey
Nov 15 '18 at 1:37

















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